1. Consider the following statements with reference to India:
1. According to the Micro, Small and Medium Enterprises Development (MSMED) Act, 2006', the ‘medium enterprises' are those with investments in plant and machinery between Rs15 crore and Rs 25 crore.
2. All bank loans to the Micro, Small and Medium Enterprises qualify under the priority sector.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
The correct answer is (d) Neither 1 nor 2.Explanation:
- According to the MSMED Act, 2006, the 'medium enterprises' are those with investments in plant and machinery between Rs 5 crore and Rs 10 crore for manufacturing units and between Rs 2 crore and Rs 5 crore for service units. However, the definition of MSMEs has been revised by the Government of India in 2020, which increased the investment and turnover limits for all categories of enterprises. As per the new definition, the 'medium enterprises' are those with investments in plant and machinery or equipment up to Rs 50 crore and turnover up to Rs 250 crore.
- Not all bank loans to the MSMEs qualify under the priority sector. The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) has issued guidelines for priority sector lending, which include certain targets and sub-targets for banks to lend to specified sectors such as agriculture, micro-credit, education, housing, etc. The MSME sector is one of the categories under the priority sector, but only loans up to certain limits are eligible for priority sector classification. For example, loans to micro enterprises up to Rs 1 crore, loans to small enterprises up to Rs 10 crore and loans to medium enterprises up to Rs 20 crore are eligible for priority sector classification.
2. With reference to Central Bank digital currencies, consider the following statements:
1 It is possible to make payments in a digital currency without using US dollar or SWIFT system.
2. A digital currency can be distributed with condition programmed into it such as a time frame for spending it.
Which of the statements given above is are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
The correct answer is (c) Both 1 and 2.
Explanation:
It is possible to make payments in a digital currency without using US dollar or SWIFT system. A digital currency is a form of money that exists only electronically and can be transferred directly between users without intermediaries. A central bank digital currency (CBDC) is a digital currency issued by a central bank that is legal tender in its jurisdiction. A CBDC can be used for domestic and cross-border payments without relying on the US dollar or the SWIFT network, which is a global system for facilitating financial transactions among banks and other institutions. For example, China's digital yuan, which is a CBDC under development, aims to reduce its dependence on the US dollar and enhance its financial sovereignty.
A digital currency can be distributed with condition programmed into it such as a time frame for spending it. A digital currency can be designed with smart contracts, which are self-executing agreements that are embedded in the code of the currency. Smart contracts can enforce certain rules or conditions for the use of the digital currency, such as expiration dates, spending limits, interest rates, etc. For example, a CBDC can be programmed to stimulate consumption by setting a time frame for spending it before it loses value.
3. In the context of finance, the term beta' refers to
(a) the process of simultaneous buying and selling of an asset from different platforms
(b) an investment strategy of portfolio manager to balance risk versus reward.
(c) a tурe of systemic risk that arises where perfect hedging is not possible.
(d) a numeric value that measures the fluctuations of a stock to changes in the over all stock market.
The correct answer is (d) a numeric value that measures the fluctuations of a stock to changes in the overall stock market.
Explanation:
Beta (β) is a measure of the volatility or systematic risk of a security or portfolio compared to the market as a whole. It is used in the capital asset pricing model (CAPM), which describes the relationship between systematic risk and expected return for assets (usually stocks)¹²³.
- Beta is calculated by dividing the covariance of the security's returns and the market's returns by the variance of the market's returns over a specified period. Beta represents the slope of the line through a regression of data points, where each data point represents an individual stock's returns against those of the market as a whole.
A beta coefficient can measure the volatility of an individual stock compared to the systematic risk of the entire market. A beta of 1 means that the security moves exactly as volatile as the market. A beta greater than 1 means that the security is more volatile than the market. A beta less than 1 means that the security is less volatile than the market. A beta of 0 means that the security is uncorrelated to the market. A negative beta means that the security is negatively correlated to the market.
4. Consider the following atatements:
1 The Self-Help Group (SHG) programme was originally initiated the State Bank of India
by providing microcredit to the financially deprived.
2 In an SHQ, all members of a group take responsibility for a loan that an individual member takes.
3 The Regional Rural Banks and Scheduled Commercial Banks support SHOs.
How many of the above statements are correct?
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) All three
(d) None
The correct answer is (b) Only two.
Explanation:
The Self-Help Group (SHG) programme was originally initiated by the National Bank for Agriculture and Rural Development (NABARD) in 1986-87 by providing microcredit to the financially deprived. The State Bank of India was one of the banks that participated in the programme, but it was not the initiator. Therefore, statement 1 is incorrect.
In an SHG, all members of a group take responsibility for a loan that an individual member takes. This is known as joint liability or group guarantee, which ensures that the members repay their loans on time and also monitor each other's activities . Therefore, statement 2 is correct.
The Regional Rural Banks and Scheduled Commercial Banks support SHGs. These banks are involved in providing credit linkage to the SHGs under the SHG-Bank Linkage Programme (SBLP), which was launched by NABARD in 1992. The SBLP enables the SHGs to access formal financial services from banks at affordable rates and terms. Therefore, statement 3 is correct.
5.
Consider the following statements
Statement-I:
India's public sector health care system
largely focuses on curative care with limited
preventive, promotive and rehabilitative care.
Statement-II:
Under
India's decentralized approach to health care delivery, the States are
primarily responsible for organizing health services.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
(a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and statement II is the correct explanation for Statement-I
(b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and statement II is not the correct explanation for statement I.
(C) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect.
(d) Statement-I is incorrect but statement II is correct.
The correct answer is (b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and statement II is not the correct explanation for statement I.
Explanation:
Statement-I is correct. India's public sector health care system largely focuses on curative care with limited preventive, promotive and rehabilitative care. Curative care refers to the treatment of diseases and injuries, while preventive care refers to the measures taken to avoid diseases and injuries. Promotive care refers to the actions that enhance health and well-being, while rehabilitative care refers to the restoration of health and function after diseases and injuries. According to a study by the World Health Organization (WHO), India's public health expenditure on curative care was 49.8% of the total health expenditure in 2017, while the expenditure on preventive care was only 9.6%, on promotive care was 3.4% and on rehabilitative care was 0.2%.
Statement-II is correct. Under India's decentralized approach to health care delivery, the states are primarily responsible for organizing health services. The Indian Constitution makes the provision of health care in India the responsibility of the state governments, while the central government plays a supportive and supplementary role. The states have autonomy in planning, financing and implementing health programmes according to their needs and priorities. The central government provides technical and financial assistance to the states through various schemes and programmes such as the National Health Mission, Ayushman Bharat, etc.
However, statement II is not the correct explanation for statement I. The decentralized approach to health care delivery does not necessarily imply that the public sector health care system will focus more on curative care than on preventive, promotive and rehabilitative care. The focus of the public sector health care system depends on various factors such as the availability of resources, the burden of disease, the demand for services, the policy framework, etc. Therefore, statement II is not related to statement I as a cause or a consequence.
6.
Consider the following statements:
Statement-I
According to the United Nations' World Water Development
Report
2022', India extracts more
than
a quarter of the world's groundwater withdrawal
each year.
Statement-Il
India needs to extract more than a quarter of the world's groundwater each year to satisfy the drinking water and sanitation needs of almost 18% of world's population living in its territory.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
(a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and statement II is the correct explanation for Statement-I
(b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and statement II is not the correct explanation for statement I.
(C) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect.
(d) Statement-I is incorrect but statement II is correct.
The correct answer is (c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect.
Explanation:
- Statement-I is correct. According to the United Nations' World Water Development Report 2022, India extracts more than a quarter of the world's groundwater withdrawal each year. The report states that India accounts for 26% of the global groundwater abstraction, followed by China (11%), Pakistan (7%), Iran (6%) and the USA (6%). The report also warns that India is among the countries facing high or extremely high water stress and groundwater depletion.
- Statement-II is incorrect. India does not need to extract more than a quarter of the world's groundwater each year to satisfy the drinking water and sanitation needs of almost 18% of world's population living in its territory. The report points out that India's groundwater abstraction is driven by various factors such as population growth, urbanization, industrialization, agricultural expansion and intensification, climate change and poor governance. The report also suggests that India's groundwater use is inefficient and unsustainable, as it exceeds the natural recharge rate and causes adverse environmental and social impacts such as land subsidence, saltwater intrusion, water quality deterioration and social inequity. Therefore, statement II is not a valid justification for statement I.
7. Consider the following statements:
1. According to the Constitution of India, the Central Government has a duty to protect States from internal disturbances
2. The Constitution of India exempts the states from providing legal counsel to a person being held for preventive detention.
3. According to the Prevention of Terrorism Act 2002 confession of accused before police cannot be used as evidence.
How many of the above statements are correct?
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c)
all three
(d) None
The correct answer is (d) Statement-I is incorrect but statement II is correct.
Explanation:
- Statement-I is incorrect. According to the Constitution of India, the Central Government has a duty to protect States from external aggression and internal disturbance. This duty is mentioned in Article 355 of the Constitution, which states that "It shall be the duty of the Union to protect every State against external aggression and internal disturbance and to ensure that the government of every State is carried on in accordance with the provisions of this Constitution.". Therefore, the statement is wrong as it omits the term "external aggression".
Statement-II is correct. The Constitution of India exempts the States from providing legal counsel to a person being held for preventive detention. Preventive detention is a form of detention without trial that is used to prevent a person from acting in a manner prejudicial to certain state interests such as security, public order, foreign affairs, etc. Article 22 of the Constitution lays down certain safeguards for persons arrested or detained under ordinary law or preventive detention law. Clause (1) of Article 22 states that "No person who is arrested shall be detained in custody without being informed, as soon as may be, of the grounds for such arrest nor shall he be denied the right to consult, and to be defended by, a legal practitioner of his choice." However, clause (4) of Article 22 states that "Nothing in clauses (1) and (2) shall apply— (a) to any person who for the time being is an enemy alien; or (b) to any person who is arrested or detained under any law providing for preventive detention.". Therefore, the statement is correct as it reflects the constitutional provision.
Statement-III is incorrect. According to the Prevention of Terrorism Act 2002 (POTA), confession of accused before police can be used as evidence. POTA was a special anti-terrorism law enacted by the Parliament of India in 2002, which gave sweeping powers to the police and security agencies to deal with terrorist activities. Section 32 of POTA stated that "A confession made by a person before a police officer not lower in rank than a Superintendent of Police and recorded by such police officer either in writing or on any mechanical device like cassettes, tapes or sound tracks from out of which sounds or images can be reproduced, shall be admissible in the trial of such person or co-accused, abettor or conspirator for an offence under this Act or rules made thereunder.". Therefore, the statement is wrong as it contradicts the legal provision.
8 Which one of the following countries has been suffering from decades of civil strife and food shortages and was in news in the recent past for its very severe famine?
(a) Angola
(b) Costa Rica
(c) Ecuador
(d) Somalia
The correct answer is (d) Somalia.
Explanation:
Somalia is a country in the Horn of Africa that has been suffering from decades of civil strife and food shortages and was in news in the recent past for its very severe famine. Somalia has been plagued by civil war, clan violence, terrorism, drought, floods and locusts since the collapse of its central government in 1991. These factors have disrupted the agricultural production, trade and humanitarian access, leading to widespread food insecurity and malnutrition among the population.
In 2011-2012, Somalia experienced one of the worst famines in recent history, which killed an estimated 260,000 people, half of them children under five. The famine was caused by a combination of drought, conflict and restricted humanitarian access by the militant group al-Shabaab, which controlled large parts of southern Somalia at the time. The famine was declared over in February 2012, but the humanitarian situation remained critical for millions of Somalis.
In 2020-2021, Somalia faced another severe food crisis due to the triple threat of Covid-19 pandemic, desert locust infestation and below-average rainfall. According to the UN, more than 5.9 million people, or about half of the population, were in need of humanitarian assistance as of June 2021. The UN also warned that more than 800,000 people were facing emergency levels of acute food insecurity (IPC phase 4), one step away from famine (IPC phase 5), and that this number could rise to 2.7 million by September 2021 without urgent action.
9. Consider the following statements:
1. In India, the Biodiversity
Management Committees are key to the realization of the objectives of the Nagoya Protocol.
2. The Biodiversity Management Committees
have important factions in determining access and benefit sharing, including the power to levy collection fees the access of biological resources
Within its jurisdiction.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
The correct answer is (c) Both 1 and 2.
Explanation:
Statement 1 is correct. The Biodiversity Management Committees (BMCs) are key to the realization of the objectives of the Nagoya Protocol. The Nagoya Protocol on Access and Benefit-sharing is a supplementary agreement to the Convention on Biological Diversity (CBD), which aims at sharing the benefits arising from the utilization of genetic resources in a fair and equitable way. The Nagoya Protocol recognizes the role of indigenous and local communities in conserving and sustainably using biodiversity and their associated traditional knowledge. The Nagoya Protocol also requires its parties to take measures to support compliance with prior informed consent and mutually agreed terms for access and benefit-sharing of genetic resources and traditional knowledge.
- The Biodiversity Management Committees are statutory bodies established at local level under the Biological Diversity Act, 2002, which is India's domestic legislation to implement the CBD and the Nagoya Protocol. The BMCs are responsible for preparing, maintaining and validating the People's Biodiversity Registers (PBRs), which document the biological resources and associated traditional knowledge available within their jurisdiction. The BMCs also advise on matters related to conservation, sustainable use and equitable sharing of benefits from the use of biological resources and traditional knowledge. Thus, the BMCs play a crucial role in ensuring that the objectives of the Nagoya Protocol are met at the grassroots level.
Statement 2 is correct. The Biodiversity Management Committees have important functions in determining access and benefit-sharing, including the power to levy collection fees for access of biological resources within its jurisdiction. According to Section 41(3) of the Biological Diversity Act, 2002, "Every Biodiversity Management Committee may charge collection fee from any person for accessing or collecting any biological resource for commercial purposes from areas falling within its territorial jurisdiction.". This provision enables the BMCs to regulate access to biological resources and generate revenue for conservation and livelihood purposes. Moreover, according to Section 41(4) of the Act, "The amount so collected shall be deposited in the Local Biodiversity Fund.". The Local Biodiversity Fund is a fund established by every local body under Section 43 of the Act, which is used for conservation and promotion of biodiversity in its area. Thus, the BMCs have a significant role in implementing the principle of benefit-sharing as envisaged by the Nagoya Protocol.
10: Consider the following statements in respect of election to the President of India
1. The members nominated to either House of the Parliament or the Legislative Assemblies of States are also eligible to be included in the Electoral College.
2. Higher the number of elective Assembly seats,
higher is the value of vote of each MLA of that
State.
3. The value of vote of each MLA of Madhya Pradesh is greater than that of Kerala.
4. The value of vote of each MLA of Puducherry is higher than that of Arunacha Pradesh because the
of total population to total number of elective seats
Puducherry is greater as compared to Arunachal Pradesh.
How many of the above statements are correct?
(a) only one
(b) only two
(c) only three
(d) all four
The correct answer is (b) Only two.
Explanation:
- Statement 1 is incorrect. The members nominated to either House of the Parliament or the Legislative Assemblies of States are not eligible to be included in the Electoral College. The Electoral College for the election of the President of India consists of the elected members of both Houses of Parliament and the elected members of the Legislative Assemblies of the States and the Union Territories of Delhi and Puducherry. The nominated members of Rajya Sabha, Lok Sabha and the Legislative Assemblies are not part of the Electoral College. This is specified in Article 54 of the Constitution, which states that "The President shall be elected by the members of an electoral college consisting of— (a) the elected members of both Houses of Parliament; and (b) the elected members of the Legislative Assemblies of the States."
Statement 2 is correct. Higher the number of elective Assembly seats, higher is the value of vote of each MLA of that State. The value of vote of each MLA is calculated by dividing the population of the State as per Census 1971 by the total number of elected members in its Assembly and then dividing that quotient by 1000. The formula is: Value of vote = Population / (Number of MLAs × 1000). Thus, if a State has more elective Assembly seats, then its denominator will be larger and its value of vote will be higher. For example, Uttar Pradesh has 403 elective Assembly seats and its value of vote is 208, while Sikkim has 32 elective Assembly seats and its value of vote is 7.
Statement 3 is incorrect. The value of vote of each MLA of Madhya Pradesh is lower than that of Kerala. Madhya Pradesh has 230 elective Assembly seats and its value of vote is 131, while Kerala has 140 elective Assembly seats and its value of vote is 152. This is because Kerala has a higher population-to-seat ratio than Madhya Pradesh as per Census 1971. Kerala's population was 2,13,47,000 and its population-to-seat ratio was 1,52,477, while Madhya Pradesh's population was 3,01,65,000 and its population-to-seat ratio was 1,31,152.
Statement 4 is incorrect. The value of vote of each MLA of Puducherry is lower than that of Arunachal Pradesh because the ratio of total population to total number of elective seats in Puducherry is lower as compared to Arunachal Pradesh. Puducherry has 30 elective Assembly seats and its value of vote is 16, while Arunachal Pradesh has 60 elective Assembly seats and its value of vote is 17. This is because Arunachal Pradesh has a higher population-to-seat ratio than Puducherry as per Census 1971. Arunachal Pradesh's population was 4,67,000 and its population-to-seat ratio was 7,783, while Puducherry's population was 4,74,000 and its population-to-seat ratio was 15,800.
11 Consider the following countries :
1 Bulgaria 2 Czech Republic 3 Hungary 4 Latvia 5 Lithuania. 6 Romania
How many of the above mentioned countries share a land border with Ukraine?
(a) only two
(b) only three
(c) only three
(d) only five
The correct answer is (b) Only two.
Explanation:
Statement 1 is incorrect. Bulgaria does not share a land border with Ukraine. Bulgaria is located in Southeast Europe and borders Romania, Serbia, North Macedonia, Greece and Turkey. Bulgaria also has a coastline on the Black Sea, which separates it from Ukraine.
Statement 2 is correct. Czech Republic does not share a land border with Ukraine. Czech Republic is located in Central Europe and borders Germany, Poland, Slovakia and Austria. Czech Republic is landlocked and does not have access to any sea.
Statement 3 is correct. Hungary shares a land border with Ukraine. Hungary is located in Central Europe and borders Slovakia, Romania, Serbia, Croatia, Slovenia and Austria. Hungary also has a short border with Ukraine in the northeast corner of the country.
Statement 4 is incorrect. Latvia does not share a land border with Ukraine. Latvia is located in Northeast Europe and borders Estonia, Russia, Belarus and Lithuania. Latvia also has a coastline on the Baltic Sea, which separates it from Ukraine.
Statement 5 is incorrect. Lithuania does not share a land border with Ukraine. Lithuania is located in Northeast Europe and borders Latvia, Belarus, Poland and Russia (Kaliningrad exclave). Lithuania also has a coastline on the Baltic Sea, which separates it from Ukraine.
Statement 6 is correct. Romania shares a land border with Ukraine. Romania is located in Southeast Europe and borders Bulgaria, Serbia, Hungary, Moldova and Ukraine. Romania also has a coastline on the Black Sea.
Therefore, only two of the above mentioned countries share a land border with Ukraine: Hungary and Romania.
12. With reference to the Earth's atmosphere, which one of the following statements is correct?
(a) Total amount of insolation received at the
equator is roughly about 10 times of that received at the poles.
(b) Infrared rays constitute roughly two-thirds of insolation.
(c) Infrared waves are largely absorbed
by
water vapour that is concentrated in the is
lower Atmosphere.
(d) Infrared waves are a part of visible spectrum of electromagnetic waves of solar radiation.
The correct answer is (c) Infrared waves are largely absorbed by water vapour that is concentrated in the lower atmosphere.
Explanation:
Statement (a) is incorrect. The total amount of insolation received at the equator is roughly about twice of that received at the poles, not ten times. This is because the equator receives more direct and concentrated solar radiation throughout the year than the poles, which receive more oblique and diffuse solar radiation. The average annual insolation at the equator is about 2,500 kWh/m 2 , while at the poles it is about 1,250 kWh/m 2.
Statement (b) is incorrect. Infrared rays constitute roughly half of insolation, not two-thirds. Infrared rays are electromagnetic waves with wavelengths longer than visible light but shorter than microwaves. They carry heat energy and can be detected by thermal sensors. The sun emits about 49% of its energy as infrared rays, 40% as visible light and 11% as ultraviolet rays.
Statement (c) is correct. Infrared waves are largely absorbed by water vapour that is concentrated in the lower atmosphere. Water vapour is a greenhouse gas that traps heat in the atmosphere and regulates the earth's temperature. Water vapour absorbs infrared radiation emitted by the earth's surface and re-emits it in all directions, creating a greenhouse effect. Water vapour is more abundant in the lower atmosphere (troposphere) than in the upper atmosphere (stratosphere), where it is very dry.
Statement (d) is incorrect. Infrared waves are not a part of visible spectrum of electromagnetic waves of solar radiation. The visible spectrum is the range of wavelengths of electromagnetic waves that can be perceived by human eyes as different colours. The visible spectrum ranges from about 380 nm to 750 nm, corresponding to violet, indigo, blue, green, yellow, orange and red colours. Infrared waves have wavelengths longer than 750 nm and are invisible to human eyes.
13.
Consider the following statements
Statement-I
The soil in tropical rain forests is rich in
nutrients.
Statement-II:
The high temperature and moisture of tropical rain forests cause dead organic matter in the soil to decompose quickly.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
(a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and statement II is the correct explanation for Statement-I
(b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and statement II is not the correct explanation for statement I.
(C) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect.
(d) Statement-I is incorrect but statement II is correct.
The correct answer is (d) Statement-I is incorrect but statement II is correct.
Explanation:
Statement-I is incorrect. The soil in tropical rain forests is not rich in nutrients, but rather poor and infertile. This is because most of the nutrients in tropical rain forests are stored in the living biomass of plants and animals, rather than in the soil. The high temperature and moisture of tropical rain forests cause dead organic matter in the soil to decompose quickly, releasing nutrients that are rapidly taken up by the roots of plants or leached out by heavy rainfall. The soil in tropical rain forests is also highly weathered and acidic, with low levels of minerals and organic matter.
Statement-II is correct. The high temperature and moisture of tropical rain forests cause dead organic matter in the soil to decompose quickly. Decomposition is the process by which organic matter is broken down into simpler substances by microorganisms such as bacteria and fungi. Decomposition releases nutrients such as nitrogen, phosphorus and potassium that are essential for plant growth. However, in tropical rain forests, decomposition occurs at a faster rate than in other ecosystems because of the warm and humid conditions that favor microbial activity. As a result, nutrients are not retained in the soil for long, but are either absorbed by plants or washed away by rain. Therefore, statement II is a valid observation, but not an explanation for statement I.
14.
Consider the following statements
Statement-1:
The temperature
contrast between continents and
oceans is Greater
during summer than in winter.
Statement-II:
The specific heat of water is more than that of land surface.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
(a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and statement II is the correct explanation for Statement-I
(b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and statement II is not the correct explanation for statement I.
(C) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect.
(d) Statement-I is incorrect but statement II is correct.
The correct answer is (b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and statement II is not the correct explanation for statement I.
Explanation:
- Statement-I is correct. The temperature contrast between continents and oceans is greater during summer than in winter. This is because continents and oceans have different heat capacities, which means they absorb and release heat at different rates. Continents have a lower heat capacity than oceans, which means they heat up and cool down faster than oceans. During summer, continents receive more solar radiation than oceans and warm up more quickly, creating a large temperature difference. During winter, continents lose more heat than oceans and cool down more quickly, reducing the temperature difference.
Statement-II is correct. The specific heat of water is more than that of land surface. Specific heat is the amount of heat required to raise the temperature of one gram of a substance by one degree Celsius. Water has a high specific heat of 4.18 joules per gram per degree Celsius, while land surface has a lower specific heat of about 0.8 joules per gram per degree Celsius. This means that water can store more heat than land surface for the same change in temperature.
However, statement II is not the correct explanation for statement I. The specific heat of water and land surface affects the rate of heating and cooling, but not the amount of solar radiation received by continents and oceans. The amount of solar radiation received by continents and oceans depends on other factors such as latitude, season, tilt of the earth's axis, cloud cover, albedo, etc. Therefore, statement II does not account for the variation in temperature contrast between continents and oceans during summer and winter.
15 Consider the following statements
1 In a seismograph, P waves are recorded earlier than S waves.
2. In P waves, the individual particles vibrate to and fro in the direction of wave propagation whereas in S waves, the particles vibrate up and down at right angles to the direction of wave propagation.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
The correct answer is (c) Both 1 and 2.
Explanation:
Statement 1 is correct. In a seismograph, P waves are recorded earlier than S waves. This is because P waves are faster than S waves and can travel through both solids and liquids, while S waves are slower and can only travel through solids. P waves are primary or pressure waves that cause the particles of the medium to vibrate back and forth along the direction of wave propagation. S waves are secondary or shear waves that cause the particles of the medium to vibrate perpendicular to the direction of wave propagation.
Statement 2 is correct. In P waves, the individual particles vibrate to and fro in the direction of wave propagation whereas in S waves, the particles vibrate up and down at right angles to the direction of wave propagation. This is the difference between longitudinal and transverse waves. Longitudinal waves are waves in which the displacement of the medium is in the same direction as, or the opposite direction to, the direction of propagation of the wave. Transverse waves are waves in which the displacement of the medium is perpendicular to the direction of propagation of the wave.
16. With reference to coal-based thermal power plants in India, consider the following statements:
1. None of them uses seawater.
2. None of them is set up in water-stressed district.
3. None of them is privately owned.
How many of the above statements are correct?
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) All three
(d) None
The correct answer is (d) None.
Explanation:
- Statement 1 is incorrect. Some of the coal-based thermal power plants in India use seawater for cooling purposes. For example, the Mundra Ultra Mega Power Project in Gujarat, which is the largest coal-based power plant in India, uses seawater for its cooling system. The plant has a capacity of 4,620 MW and is owned and operated by Coastal Gujarat Power Limited, a subsidiary of Tata Power.
Statement 2 is incorrect. Some of the coal-based thermal power plants in India are set up in water-stressed districts. For example, the Singrauli Super Thermal Power Station in Madhya Pradesh, which has a capacity of 2,000 MW and is owned and operated by NTPC, is located in a district that has been classified as "extremely high" water stress by the World Resources Institute. Similarly, the Korba Super Thermal Power Station in Chhattisgarh, which has a capacity of 2,600 MW and is also owned and operated by NTPC, is located in a district that has been classified as "high" water stress by the same source.
Statement 3 is incorrect. Some of the coal-based thermal power plants in India are privately owned. For example, the Adani Power Mundra Thermal Power Station in Gujarat, which has a capacity of 4,620 MW and is the second largest coal-based power plant in India, is owned and operated by Adani Power. Similarly, the Sasan Ultra Mega Power Project in Madhya Pradesh, which has a capacity of 3,960 MW and is the fourth largest coal-based power plant in India, is owned and operated by Reliance Power.
17.
‘Wolbachia method' is sometimes talked about with reference to which one of the
following?
(a) Controlling
the viral diseases spread by
mosquitoes.
(b) Converting crop residues into
packing material
(c) Producing biodegradable plastics
(d) Producing biochar from thermo-chemical conversion of biomass.
The correct answer is (a) Controlling the viral diseases spread by mosquitoes.
Explanation:
- The Wolbachia method is a novel technique for controlling the viral diseases spread by mosquitoes, such as dengue, Zika, chikungunya and yellow fever. The technique involves infecting a sample of mosquitoes or mosquito eggs with a naturally occurring, virus-blocking bacterium called Wolbachia and releasing them into a native mosquito population. Wolbachia is a common bacterium that infects many insects, but not the Aedes aegypti mosquito, which is the main vector of these viral diseases. When Wolbachia-infected mosquitoes mate with wild mosquitoes, they pass on the bacterium to their offspring. Over time, this increases the proportion of Wolbachia-infected mosquitoes in the population. Wolbachia reduces the ability of mosquitoes to transmit viruses to humans by either preventing the virus from replicating inside the mosquito or shortening the lifespan of the mosquito.
The Wolbachia method is safe for humans and the environment, as Wolbachia does not infect humans or other animals and does not affect the behavior or ecology of mosquitoes. The method is also self-sustaining, as Wolbachia can persist in mosquito populations for many generations without the need for further releases. The method is also cost-effective and scalable, as it does not require expensive infrastructure or continuous interventions. The method has been tested and implemented in several countries around the world, such as Australia, Brazil, Colombia, Indonesia, Vietnam and Sri Lanka, with promising results in reducing dengue transmission.
18.
Consider the following activities:
1 Spreading finely ground basalt rock on
farmlands extensively.
2.
Increasing the alkalinity of oceans by adding lime
3 Capturing carbon dioxide released by various
industries and pumping it into abandoned subterranean mines in the form of
carbonated waters
How many of the above activities are often considered and discussed for carbon capture and sequestration?
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) All three
(d) None
The correct answer is (c).
Spreading finely ground basalt rock on farmlands extensively. This is a form of enhanced weathering, which accelerates the natural process of carbon dioxide uptake by minerals.Increasing the alkalinity of oceans by adding lime. This is a form of ocean fertilization, which aims to increase the uptake of carbon dioxide by marine organisms.
Capturing carbon dioxide released by various industries and pumping it into abandoned subterranean mines in the form of carbonated waters. This is a form of geological sequestration, which involves injecting carbon dioxide into deep underground formations.
19. 'Aerial metagenomics' best refers to which one of the following situations?
(a) Collecting DNA samples from air in a habitat at one go
(b) Understanding the genetic makeup of avian species of a habitat
(c) Using air -borne devices to collect blood samples from moving animals
(d) Sending drones to inaccessible areas to collect plant and animal samples from land surfaces and water bodies.
correct answer is A - Collecting DNA samples from air in a habitat at one go.This is because aerial metagenomics is a method of plucking the DNA of organisms from thin air and analysing it to identify the species present in a habitat. This technique can be used to detect and monitor wildlife, especially hard-to-see animals.
Some of the advantages of aerial metagenomics are:
It can detect and monitor wildlife, especially hard-to-see animals, by plucking their DNA from thin air.
It can study microorganisms obtained from specific environments by functional gene screening or sequencing analysis.
It can explore the diversity, abundance, and interaction of microbes in any system, making it a powerful tool in microbiology.
It can screen new bioactive substances and new functional genes from microorganisms and microbial metabolites.
20.
Microsatellite DNA' is used in the case
of which one of the followng?
(a) Studying
the evolutionary among various species of fauna.
(b) Stimulating ‘stem cells’ to transform into diverse functional tissues.
(c) Promoting clonal propagation of horticulture plants.
(d) assessing the efficacy of drugs by conducting series of drug trials in a population.
Microsatellite DNA is a short segment of DNA that repeats multiple times at a certain location in the genome. It can vary in length and number of repeats among individuals, which makes it useful for studying genetic diversity and relatedness.
Explanation
answer is (a) Studying the evolutionary relationships among various species of fauna. This is because microsatellite DNA can be used to compare the genetic variation and similarity between different populations or species of animals.
The other options are less likely to be correct because:
(b) Stimulating ‘stem cells’ to transform into diverse functional tissues: Microsatellite DNA is not involved in stem cell differentiation or tissue formation. Stem cells are influenced by other factors such as transcription factors, growth factors, and epigenetic modifications.
(c) Promoting clonal propagation of horticulture plants: Microsatellite DNA is not used to promote clonal propagation, but rather to identify and characterize clones of plants. Clonal propagation is achieved by methods such as cuttings, grafting, tissue culture, or genetic engineering.
(d) Assessing the efficacy of drugs by conducting series of drug trials in a population: Microsatellite DNA is not used to assess the efficacy of drugs, but rather to study the pharmacogenetics or pharmacogenomics of drugs. This is the study of how genetic variation affects the response to drugs in different individuals or groups.
21 With reference to the Indian History, Alexander Rea, A. H. Longhurst, Robert Sewell, Jemes Burgess and Walter Elliot were associated with
(a) archaeological excavations
(b) establishment of English Press in Colonial India
(c) establishment of Churches in Princely States
(d) construction of railways in Colonial India
Explanation
correct answer is (a) archaeological excavations. Alexander Rea, A. H. Longhurst, Robert Sewell, James Burgess and Walter Elliot were all British archaeologists who worked in India and contributed to the study of Indian history and culture.
Brief biographies of these archaeologists:
Alexander Rea (1846-1924) was a Scottish archaeologist who worked as the Superintendent of the Archaeological Survey of India for Southern India. He conducted excavations at Amaravati, Nagarjunakonda, Adichanallur and other sites. He also wrote several books and reports on Indian archaeology.
A. H. Longhurst (1879-1954) was an English archaeologist who worked as the Superintendent of the Archaeological Survey of India for Southern India and Western India. He excavated sites such as Mahabalipuram, Ajanta, Ellora and Kanheri. He also wrote several books on Indian art and architecture.
Robert Sewell (1845-1925) was an English civil servant and historian who worked as the Collector of Madras and later as the Registrar of Mysore. He collected and translated many historical documents related to the Vijayanagara Empire and South Indian history. He also wrote several books such as A Forgotten Empire and The Indian Calendar.
James Burgess (1832-1916) was a Scottish archaeologist who worked as the Director General of the Archaeological Survey of India for Western India. He surveyed and documented many ancient monuments and sites such as Sanchi, Sarnath, Elephanta and Bhaja. He also edited several journals and books on Indian archaeology and art.
Walter Elliot (1803-1887) was a Scottish civil servant and naturalist who worked as the Collector of Madras and later as the Commissioner of Mysore. He collected many antiquities, coins, manuscripts and specimens from South India and donated them to various museums and institutions. He also wrote several papers on Indian history, linguistics, zoology and botany.
22 consider the tollowing pairs
site Well known for
1 Besnagar :Shaivite cave shrine
2. Bhaja :Buddhist cave shrine
3 Sittanavasal: Jain cave shrine
How many of the above pairs are correctly matched?
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) all three
(d) None
explanation - the correct answer is (b) Only two. Besnagar is not a Shaivite cave shrine, but an ancient city near Vidisha in Madhya Pradesh, where a famous Garuda pillar was erected by Heliodorus, a Greek ambassador to the Sunga king Bhagabhadra.
Bhaja and Sittanavasal are both cave shrines, but of different religions. Bhaja is a Buddhist cave shrine located near Lonavala in Maharashtra, dating back to the 2nd century BC. It has a large chaitya hall and several viharas with sculptures and paintings.
Sittanavasal is a Jain cave shrine located near Pudukkottai in Tamil Nadu, dating back to the 2nd century AD. It has a rock-cut temple with frescoes and inscriptions, and a natural cavern with polished rock beds for Jain monks.
23.
Consider the following statements
Statement-I:
7th August is declared as the National
Handloom Day.
Statement-Il
It was in 1905 that the Swadeshi Movement was launched on the same day.
Which one of the following is correct in
respect of the above statements?
(a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and statement II is the correct explanation for Statement-I
(b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and statement II is not the correct explanation for statement I.
(C) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect.
(d) Statement-I is incorrect but statement II is correct.
The
correct answer is (a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and
statement II is the correct explanation for Statement-I.
Explanation
7th August is declared as the National Handloom Day to celebrate the handloom sector and its contribution to the socio-economic development of India. The date was chosen to commemorate the Swadeshi Movement that was launched on the same day in 1905 after the Partition of Bengal by the British colonial government. The Swadeshi Movement aimed at establishing economic autonomy within British colonial rule by promoting indigenous industries and products, especially handloom weaves.
24. Consider the following statements in respect of the National Flag of India, according to the Flag Code of India, 2002:
Statement I
One of the standard sizes of the National Flag of India is 600 mm x 400 mm
Statement-II:
The ratio of the length to the height (width) of the Flag shall be 3:2
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
(a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and statement II is the correct explanation for Statement-I
(b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and statement II is not the correct explanation for statement I.
(C) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect.
(d) Statement-I is incorrect but statement II is correct.
The correct answer is (b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and statement II is not the correct explanation for statement I. The ratio of the length to the height (width) of the Flag is indeed 3:2, as per Part I of the Flag Code of India, 2002. However, this is not the explanation for why one of the standard sizes of the National Flag is 600 mm x 400 mm. The standard sizes are based on convenience and utility, not on the ratio of the dimensions.
EXPLANATION
The Flag Code of India, 2002 is a document that contains the laws, conventions, practices and instructions for the guidance and benefit of all concerned regarding the hoisting, display and use of the National Flag of India¹. The Flag Code of India, 2002 has been divided into three parts:
Part I contains the general description of the National Flag, such as its shape, size, colour, material and design.
Part II is devoted to the display of the National Flag by members of public, private organizations, educational institutions, etc. It specifies the occasions, places and manners for hoisting and displaying the National Flag.
Part III relates to the display of the National Flag by Central and State governments and their organisations and agencies. It specifies the protocol and etiquette for handling and respecting the National Flag by dignitaries and officials.
The Flag Code of India, 2002 was amended in 2021 to allow the National Flag to be made of polyester or machine made flag, in addition to hand spun and hand woven khadi bunting. The Flag Code of India, 2002 supersedes the previous Flag Code - India that existed before 2002.
25.
Consider the following statements in respect of the Constitution Day
Statement-I
The Constitution Day is celebrated on 26th
November every year to promote constitutional values among clizens.
Statement-II
26th November,
1949, the Constituent Assembly
of India set up a Drafting
Committee under the Chairmanship of Dr. B. R. Ambedkar to prepare a Draft
Constitution of India.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
(a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and statement II is the correct explanation for Statement-I
(b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and statement II is not the correct explanation for statement I.
(C) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect.
(d) Statement-I is incorrect but statement II is correct.
Rest of the questions and answer are coming soon on this website.